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Author Topic: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations: Comments  (Read 6641 times)

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guest8

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Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations: Comments
« on: August 12, 2018, 09:48:49 pm »




There are many who flee from Dispensationalism, some who agree with it and others like one well know scholar stated;  are 'Leaky Dispensationalist.

Dispensation is stated in the KJV Bible 4 times:    1Co 9:17;  Eph 1:10; Eph 3:2; Col 1:25. The word in itself is Biblical.

I have found that one can divide the Bible in many sections but they do not in anyway help with the literal reading and understanding the Bible. The following is my position on "Rightly Dividing the Bible (God's WORD)

Pre-Law, Law, Jesus's Ministry,  Age of Grace, The End Days

You may have different dispensations but these actually work for me?

All Pre-Law covers Creation, the Flood, etc.(Genesis to Deuteronomy)

The Law  given to Moses in and Prophets was until John (the Baptist) Luke 16:16 (Deuteronomy to Matthew, Mark and Luke)

Between The Law, the ministries of John the Baptist, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and Jesus were in process until the beginning of the "Body of Christ (the Age of Grace)" which started at Acts 2:1.
The Age of Grace will last from Acts 2:1 to the removal of the Church (Body of Christ) via Harpazo.

After the Church is no longer on this earth, The antichrist will be revealed. The Beginning of the End days.

The only way the Old Testament could end and the FORCE of the NEW Testament could happen is with the death of a Testator. Jesus Christ. (Heb 9:16-17)

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #1 on: August 12, 2018, 09:58:13 pm »
I tend to stick with Innocence, Conscience, Government, Promise, Law, Church, and Millennium. I use them more as a guide rather than rigid blocks of time. some have clearly delineated ends; removed from Eden, the flood, and Christ's first coming. Others are murky like Government. Abraham started the dispensation of Promise, but Government kind of continued. The millennium is still future.
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guest8

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #2 on: August 13, 2018, 12:53:24 am »
I tend to stick with Innocence, Conscience, Government, Promise, Law, Church, and Millennium. I use them more as a guide rather than rigid blocks of time. some have clearly delineated ends; removed from Eden, the flood, and Christ's first coming. Others are murky like Government. Abraham started the dispensation of Promise, but Government kind of continued. The millennium is still future.

It is ok as long as one see the ending of the LAW and beginning of water Baptism for remission of sins instead of sacrifices. then a transition period into ACTs where it goes from a water Baptism to a baptism by the spirit and fire.

Blade
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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #3 on: September 30, 2018, 07:03:30 am »



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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #4 on: September 30, 2018, 07:18:01 pm »




There are many who flee from Dispensationalism, some who agree with it and others like one well know scholar stated;  are 'Leaky Dispensationalist.

Dispensation is stated in the KJV Bible 4 times:    1Co 9:17;  Eph 1:10; Eph 3:2; Col 1:25. The word in itself is Biblical.
Three of the four mentions of "dispensation" in the Bible were committed/given to Paul! Everything outside of what Paul wrote in Romans through Philemon is to Israel.
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guest8

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #5 on: September 30, 2018, 08:47:12 pm »




There are many who flee from Dispensationalism, some who agree with it and others like one well know scholar stated;  are 'Leaky Dispensationalist.

Dispensation is stated in the KJV Bible 4 times:    1Co 9:17;  Eph 1:10; Eph 3:2; Col 1:25. The word in itself is Biblical.
Three of the four mentions of "dispensation" in the Bible were committed/given to Paul! Everything outside of what Paul wrote in Romans through Philemon is to Israel.

Hello Phebe, Don't believe I have had the pleasure of speaking to you before today.

I see you are studying dispensations of the Bible. Yes, Dispensation is mentioned in the KJV Bible so it can be considered Biblical.

The Leaky Dispensationalist is also my position. The word can be taken too little or it can be used too much in a HYPER sort of way.

I use it as the KJV tells us. So does the other scholar you mentioned without naming him.

The Law Dispensation is one I think we can agree upon. The Grace dispensation is another.

Jesus tells us that the LAW and Prophets Stopped with John. John the Baptist. This preceded the 4 years of preaching to the Jewish people prior to that faithful day when Jesus rode into Jerusalem 173,880 days after the command was given to rebuild the temple and the wall, streets.

Up until this time, the message given to the Jewish people as seen in the three Gospels of Matthew, Mark,  and Luke was the Kingdom of Heaven Gospel. This gospel would have been the the millennium gospel had not the Jewish leaders at the time rejected the Trinity three times. This caused the Millennium that would have been to become postponed. That postponement has never been reactivated YET.

After the Death, Burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Cor 15:1-4), Acts (by Mark) became the transitional period of time from the Law to the Grace by Faith.

The Period of time from the day Jesus tells us that the Law stopped to Acts Chapter 2. is the dispensational period I will call the "Kingdom of Heaven ".

From Acts 2, The dispensational period of Grace by Faith started and has yet to come to a conclusion.

We know that the Millennium to come will have the "everlasting Gospel".

One could have two others dispensation periods.. Daniel's 70th week and the Millennium.

If one takes the dispensations from the beginning:

1. Creation
2. Law
3.Kingdom of Heaven
4.Grace
5.Daniel's 70th week
6.Millennium
7.New Jerusalem

Of course, one can use more dispensations and many do.

The bottom line is the dispensations represent the way God reacted to the people during a specific time. This is another study unto itself. 

And one last item. Paul IS/was our apostle today. throughout His entire set of books, they are for the CHurch (body of Christ). There are 13 +1 Books. Three of these are to Pastors with each having two epistles. The other SEVEN epistles are to the Churches of that time period. So are Jesus' letters to the Churches of that time period. Rev. chapters 2 and 3.

Are they related to each other. We know both of them have an Ephesus letter. Look to the seven letters of Jesus to see if any others fit.

The Bible is put together like a jigsaw puzzle to us but it fits like a glove with all parts involved. These 14 letters fit each other like a glove. It was a joy to study.

Blade

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #6 on: September 30, 2018, 09:19:51 pm »



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Hearing, believing and trusting the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross; His death, burial and resurrection, the gospel of our salvation, seals us with that Holy Spirit of Promise. The Lord is not slack concerning His promise. 2 Peter 3:9 KJV - 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV - Ephesians 1:10-14 KJV - Romans 10:9-10 KJV - Romans 10:13 - Romans 10:17 - Ephesians 1:7 KJV - Colossians 1:14 KJV -


That dude **** me up.
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guest32

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #7 on: September 30, 2018, 09:37:14 pm »




There are many who flee from Dispensationalism, some who agree with it and others like one well know scholar stated;  are 'Leaky Dispensationalist.

Dispensation is stated in the KJV Bible 4 times:    1Co 9:17;  Eph 1:10; Eph 3:2; Col 1:25. The word in itself is Biblical.
Three of the four mentions of "dispensation" in the Bible were committed/given to Paul! Everything outside of what Paul wrote in Romans through Philemon is to Israel.

Hello Phebe, Don't believe I have had the pleasure of speaking to you before today.

I see you are studying dispensations of the Bible. Yes, Dispensation is mentioned in the KJV Bible so it can be considered Biblical.

The Leaky Dispensationalist is also my position. The word can be taken too little or it can be used too much in a HYPER sort of way.

I use it as the KJV tells us. So does the other scholar you mentioned without naming him.

The Law Dispensation is one I think we can agree upon. The Grace dispensation is another.

Jesus tells us that the LAW and Prophets Stopped with John. John the Baptist. This preceded the 4 years of preaching to the Jewish people prior to that faithful day when Jesus rode into Jerusalem 173,880 days after the command was given to rebuild the temple and the wall, streets.

Up until this time, the message given to the Jewish people as seen in the three Gospels of Matthew, Mark,  and Luke was the Kingdom of Heaven Gospel. This gospel would have been the the millennium gospel had not the Jewish leaders at the time rejected the Trinity three times. This caused the Millennium that would have been to become postponed. That postponement has never been reactivated YET.

After the Death, Burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Cor 15:1-4), Acts (by Mark) became the transitional period of time from the Law to the Grace by Faith.

The Period of time from the day Jesus tells us that the Law stopped to Acts Chapter 2. is the dispensational period I will call the "Kingdom of Heaven ".

From Acts 2, The dispensational period of Grace by Faith started and has yet to come to a conclusion.

We know that the Millennium to come will have the "everlasting Gospel".

One could have two others dispensation periods.. Daniel's 70th week and the Millennium.

If one takes the dispensations from the beginning:

1. Creation
2. Law
3.Kingdom of Heaven
4.Grace
5.Daniel's 70th week
6.Millennium
7.New Jerusalem

Of course, one can use more dispensations and many do.

The bottom line is the dispensations represent the way God reacted to the people during a specific time. This is another study unto itself. 

And one last item. Paul IS/was our apostle today. throughout His entire set of books, they are for the CHurch (body of Christ). There are 13 +1 Books. Three of these are to Pastors with each having two epistles. The other SEVEN epistles are to the Churches of that time period. So are Jesus' letters to the Churches of that time period. Rev. chapters 2 and 3.

Are they related to each other. We know both of them have an Ephesus letter. Look to the seven letters of Jesus to see if any others fit.

The Bible is put together like a jigsaw puzzle to us but it fits like a glove with all parts involved. These 14 letters fit each other like a glove. It was a joy to study.

Blade


My preferred focus of study is on 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV and therefore the dispensations stated as such in the Bible: dispensation of the gospel committed to Paul 1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV during his provoking ministry, the dispensation of God given to Paul for us, to fulfill the word of God, even the mystery (Colossians 1:25-26 KJV), and the dispensation of the grace of God given to Paul to usward (Ephesians 3:1-9 KJV), and his mention of the dispensation of the fulness of times God might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in Him (Ephesians 1:10 KJV). I must then recognize the rest outside of that which is written by my apostle in Romans through Philemon as FOR us (Romans 15:4 KJV, 2 Timothy 3:16-17 KJV), but not TO us as I am called by the gospel (2 Timothy 1:8-10 KJV, Ephesians 3:6 KJV) which leads me to follow Paul 1 Corinthians 3:10-15 KJV, 1 Corinthians 4:15-16 KJV, Ephesians 4:1-6 KJV, 2 Timothy 1:13 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:2 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:7-8 KJV.

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guest8

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #8 on: September 30, 2018, 10:29:49 pm »




There are many who flee from Dispensationalism, some who agree with it and others like one well know scholar stated;  are 'Leaky Dispensationalist.

Dispensation is stated in the KJV Bible 4 times:    1Co 9:17;  Eph 1:10; Eph 3:2; Col 1:25. The word in itself is Biblical.
Three of the four mentions of "dispensation" in the Bible were committed/given to Paul! Everything outside of what Paul wrote in Romans through Philemon is to Israel.

 Hello Phebe, Don't believe I have had the pleasure of speaking to you before today.

I see you are studying dispensations of the Bible. Yes, Dispensation is mentioned in the KJV Bible so it can be considered Biblical.

The Leaky Dispensationalist is also my position. The word can be taken too little or it can be used too much in a HYPER sort of way.

I use it as the KJV tells us. So does the other scholar you mentioned without naming him.

The Law Dispensation is one I think we can agree upon. The Grace dispensation is another.

Jesus tells us that the LAW and Prophets Stopped with John. John the Baptist. This preceded the 4 years of preaching to the Jewish people prior to that faithful day when Jesus rode into Jerusalem 173,880 days after the command was given to rebuild the temple and the wall, streets.

Up until this time, the message given to the Jewish people as seen in the three Gospels of Matthew, Mark,  and Luke was the Kingdom of Heaven Gospel. This gospel would have been the the millennium gospel had not the Jewish leaders at the time rejected the Trinity three times. This caused the Millennium that would have been to become postponed. That postponement has never been reactivated YET.

After the Death, Burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Cor 15:1-4), Acts (by Mark) became the transitional period of time from the Law to the Grace by Faith.

The Period of time from the day Jesus tells us that the Law stopped to Acts Chapter 2. is the dispensational period I will call the "Kingdom of Heaven ".

From Acts 2, The dispensational period of Grace by Faith started and has yet to come to a conclusion.

We know that the Millennium to come will have the "everlasting Gospel".

One could have two others dispensation periods.. Daniel's 70th week and the Millennium.

If one takes the dispensations from the beginning:

1. Creation
2. Law
3.Kingdom of Heaven
4.Grace
5.Daniel's 70th week
6.Millennium
7.New Jerusalem

Of course, one can use more dispensations and many do.

The bottom line is the dispensations represent the way God reacted to the people during a specific time. This is another study unto itself. 

And one last item. Paul IS/was our apostle today. throughout His entire set of books, they are for the CHurch (body of Christ). There are 13 +1 Books. Three of these are to Pastors with each having two epistles. The other SEVEN epistles are to the Churches of that time period. So are Jesus' letters to the Churches of that time period. Rev. chapters 2 and 3.

Are they related to each other. We know both of them have an Ephesus letter. Look to the seven letters of Jesus to see if any others fit.

The Bible is put together like a jigsaw puzzle to us but it fits like a glove with all parts involved. These 14 letters fit each other like a glove. It was a joy to study.

Blade


My preferred focus of study is on 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV and therefore the dispensations stated as such in the Bible: dispensation of the gospel committed to Paul 1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV during his provoking ministry, the dispensation of God given to Paul for us, to fulfill the word of God, even the mystery (Colossians 1:25-26 KJV), and the dispensation of the grace of God given to Paul to usward (Ephesians 3:1-9 KJV), and his mention of the dispensation of the fulness of times God might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in Him (Ephesians 1:10 KJV). I must then recognize the rest outside of that which is written by my apostle in Romans through Philemon as FOR us (Romans 15:4 KJV, 2 Timothy 3:16-17 KJV), but not TO us as I am called by the gospel (2 Timothy 1:8-10 KJV, Ephesians 3:6 KJV) which leads me to follow Paul 1 Corinthians 3:10-15 KJV, 1 Corinthians 4:15-16 KJV, Ephesians 4:1-6 KJV, 2 Timothy 1:13 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:2 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:7-8 KJV.

It is ok if you recognize them as being to us (gentiles). After Acts 7, Paul's teaching were to both the Jews and the Gentiles. The Gentiles being our ancestors (or at least mine). I say that as the Bible only has two races in the world. Jews and Gentiles.

Your right, Paul is our Apostle and if we follow what he and the other Apostles after Acts 9 tell us, then everything will be ok.

Hope you have a Blessed evening Phebe.

Blade

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #9 on: October 11, 2018, 06:08:31 pm »
Dispensation in the King James Version is translated  from οικονομιαν. oikonomion.

https://biblehub.com/greek/3622.htm

"3622. oikonomia,  stewardship, administration
Usage: management of household affairs, stewardship, administration."

Look in the William Tyndale New Testament, for the four uses of oikonoma,  The Tyndale New Testament  was the first English translation from the Textus Receptus, whose verse wordings had a great influence upon the wordings of the Geneva Bible and the King James Version.

https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/1-corinthians/9.html

I Corinthians 9: 17:  "If I do it with a good will I have a rewarde. But yf I do it agaynst my will an office is committed vnto me."  "Office" is the key word

Ephesians 1: 10: "to have it declared when the tyme were full come yt all thynges bothe ye thynges which are in heven and also the thynges which are in erthe shuld be gaddered togedder even in Christ:"

The Textus Receptus Greek says "for the oikonomian of the fullness of time to head up all things is Christ."

Ephesians 3: 2:  " Yf ye have hearde of the ministracion (ministration) of the grace of god which is geven me to you warde."

Colossians 1: 25 "wher of I am made a minister acordynge to the ordinaunce of god which ordinaunce was geven me vnto you warde to fulfill ye worde of god."   

"ordinaunce" is the key word.

The question is whether it can be determined where the King James Translators got their "dispensationalist" translation of oikonomian.   One possibility is the John Wycliff English translation of the Latin Vulgate.

http://www.bibledbdata.org/onlinebibles/wycliffe_nt/

I Corinthians 9: 17 "But if Y do this thing wilfuli, Y haue mede; but if ayens my wille, dispending is bitakun to me."

Ephesians 1: 10 "hym in the dispensacioun of plente of tymes to enstore alle thingis in Crist, whiche ben in heuenes, and whiche ben in erthe, in hym."

Ephesians 3: 2 " if netheles ye han herd the dispensacioun of Goddis grace, that is youun to me in you."

Colossians 1: 25 " Of which Y Poul am maad mynystre bi the dispensacioun of God, that is youun to me in you"

Now lets look at these same New Testament scriptures in the Geneva Bible.,

http://www.genevabible.org/files/Geneva_Bible/New_Testament/1Corinthians_F.pdf

I Corinthians 9: 17 " For if I do it willingly, I have a
reward, but if I do it against my will, notwithstanding
 the dispensation is committed unto me. "

Ephesians 1: 10:  " That in the dispensation of the fullness of the times, he might
gather  together in one all things, both which are in heaven, and which are in earth,
even in Christ."

Ephesians 3: 2 " If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God, which is given me
toward you."

Colossians1:  25:  " Whereof I am a minister, according to the dispensation of God, which is
given me towards you, to fulfill the word of God, "

The translation of oikonomia as dispensation first appeared in the Geneva Bible, and the King James Version followed that translation.  But the John  1382 Wycliff English translation of Catholic Latin Bible of Jerome translated oikonomia as dispensation, in an older English version of the spelling, which is likely the source of that translation of oikonomia in the Geneva Bible.

It may have been the successor of John Calvin, Theodore Beza, who was responsible for changing the Tyndale translation of  oikonomia to the older Catholic version of dispensation.  Beza did some translations which had an influence upon the Committee which produced the Geneva Bible.
 










I Corinthians 9: 17
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guest8

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #10 on: October 12, 2018, 09:08:18 pm »
Dispensation in the King James Version is translated  from οικονομιαν. oikonomion.

https://biblehub.com/greek/3622.htm

"3622. oikonomia,  stewardship, administration
Usage: management of household affairs, stewardship, administration."

Look in the William Tyndale New Testament, for the four uses of oikonoma,  The Tyndale New Testament  was the first English translation from the Textus Receptus, whose verse wordings had a great influence upon the wordings of the Geneva Bible and the King James Version.

https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/1-corinthians/9.html

I Corinthians 9: 17:  "If I do it with a good will I have a rewarde. But yf I do it agaynst my will an office is committed vnto me."  "Office" is the key word

Ephesians 1: 10: "to have it declared when the tyme were full come yt all thynges bothe ye thynges which are in heven and also the thynges which are in erthe shuld be gaddered togedder even in Christ:"

The Textus Receptus Greek says "for the oikonomian of the fullness of time to head up all things is Christ."

Ephesians 3: 2:  " Yf ye have hearde of the ministracion (ministration) of the grace of god which is geven me to you warde."

Colossians 1: 25 "wher of I am made a minister acordynge to the ordinaunce of god which ordinaunce was geven me vnto you warde to fulfill ye worde of god."   

"ordinaunce" is the key word.

The question is whether it can be determined where the King James Translators got their "dispensationalist" translation of oikonomian.   One possibility is the John Wycliff English translation of the Latin Vulgate.

http://www.bibledbdata.org/onlinebibles/wycliffe_nt/

I Corinthians 9: 17 "But if Y do this thing wilfuli, Y haue mede; but if ayens my wille, dispending is bitakun to me."

Ephesians 1: 10 "hym in the dispensacioun of plente of tymes to enstore alle thingis in Crist, whiche ben in heuenes, and whiche ben in erthe, in hym."

Ephesians 3: 2 " if netheles ye han herd the dispensacioun of Goddis grace, that is youun to me in you."

Colossians 1: 25 " Of which Y Poul am maad mynystre bi the dispensacioun of God, that is youun to me in you"

Now lets look at these same New Testament scriptures in the Geneva Bible.,

http://www.genevabible.org/files/Geneva_Bible/New_Testament/1Corinthians_F.pdf

I Corinthians 9: 17 " For if I do it willingly, I have a
reward, but if I do it against my will, notwithstanding
 the dispensation is committed unto me. "

Ephesians 1: 10:  " That in the dispensation of the fullness of the times, he might
gather  together in one all things, both which are in heaven, and which are in earth,
even in Christ."

Ephesians 3: 2 " If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God, which is given me
toward you."

Colossians1:  25:  " Whereof I am a minister, according to the dispensation of God, which is
given me towards you, to fulfill the word of God, "

The translation of oikonomia as dispensation first appeared in the Geneva Bible, and the King James Version followed that translation.  But the John  1382 Wycliff English translation of Catholic Latin Bible of Jerome translated oikonomia as dispensation, in an older English version of the spelling, which is likely the source of that translation of oikonomia in the Geneva Bible.

It may have been the successor of John Calvin, Theodore Beza, who was responsible for changing the Tyndale translation of  oikonomia to the older Catholic version of dispensation.  Beza did some translations which had an influence upon the Committee which produced the Geneva Bible.
 

I Corinthians 9: 17



The KJV translated in the early 17th century had access to the Masoretic Text, The Latin Vulgate, the Septuagint, the Textus Receptus, around 5,000 New Testament texts and of course the Tyndale Bible.

During the 19th century, the Alexandrian Codices were argued to be not only the oldest but most preferred. This is most likely where the change in "oikonomia" came from.

Blade

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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #11 on: October 13, 2018, 11:23:37 am »
"During the 19th century, the Alexandrian Codices were argued to be not only the oldest but most preferred. This is most likely where the change in "oikonomia" came from."

Look at I Corinthians 9: 17

Textus Receptus:  ει γαρ εκων τουτο πρασσω μισθον εχω ει δε ακων οικονομιαν πεπιστευμαι

Westcott-Hort:   ει γαρ εκων τουτο πρασσω μισθον εχω ει δε ακων οικονομιαν πεπιστευμαι

Colossians 1: 25   Textus Receptus: ης εγενομην εγω διακονος κατα την οικονομιαν του θεου την δοθεισαν μοι εις υμας πληρωσαι τον λογον του θεου

Colossians 1: 25:  Westcott-Hort:  ης εγενομην εγω διακονος κατα την οικονομιαν του θεου την δοθεισαν μοι εις υμας πληρωσαι τον λογον του θεου

I doubt if there are any differences in the Greek between the Textus Receptus and the Westcott-Hort text  for Ephesians 1: 10 and Ephesians 3: 2. 

The change from the Tyndale translation of οικονομιαν is in the translation of the Textus Receptus by the Geneva Bible Committee. 

John Wyclife  translated the first Bible into English in 1382, not from the original languages, but from the Latin. Wyclife translated the Latin word ecclesiam into chirche (in old English spelling):

But then William Tyndale in his 1526 New Testament translated ekklesia as congregation, except for Acts 14: 13 and Acts 19: 37 where he used churche, meaning a pagan place of worship. Tyndale broke with Catholic tradition and used congregation for ekklesia something which might have contributed to his being strangled at the stake by the Catholics.

And after the death of John Calvin, Theodore Beza in 1556 returned to the use of church to translate ekklesia - and the Geneva Bible followed him, using church instead of congregation. Beza returned to the Catholic Capital C Church translation of ekklesia as chirche.

Did a similar change from Tyndale's translations of οικονομιαν to the Geneva Bible's translation as dispensation, again going back to the older Catholic translation?
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Re: Rightly Dividing the Bible or Dispensations
« Reply #12 on: October 22, 2018, 07:41:51 pm »
"During the 19th century, the Alexandrian Codices were argued to be not only the oldest but most preferred. This is most likely where the change in "oikonomia" came from."

Look at I Corinthians 9: 17

Textus Receptus:  ει γαρ εκων τουτο πρασσω μισθον εχω ει δε ακων οικονομιαν πεπιστευμαι

Westcott-Hort:   ει γαρ εκων τουτο πρασσω μισθον εχω ει δε ακων οικονομιαν πεπιστευμαι

Colossians 1: 25   Textus Receptus: ης εγενομην εγω διακονος κατα την οικονομιαν του θεου την δοθεισαν μοι εις υμας πληρωσαι τον λογον του θεου

Colossians 1: 25:  Westcott-Hort:  ης εγενομην εγω διακονος κατα την οικονομιαν του θεου την δοθεισαν μοι εις υμας πληρωσαι τον λογον του θεου

I doubt if there are any differences in the Greek between the Textus Receptus and the Westcott-Hort text  for Ephesians 1: 10 and Ephesians 3: 2. 

The change from the Tyndale translation of οικονομιαν is in the translation of the Textus Receptus by the Geneva Bible Committee. 

John Wyclife  translated the first Bible into English in 1382, not from the original languages, but from the Latin. Wyclife translated the Latin word ecclesiam into chirche (in old English spelling):

But then William Tyndale in his 1526 New Testament translated ekklesia as congregation, except for Acts 14: 13 and Acts 19: 37 where he used churche, meaning a pagan place of worship. Tyndale broke with Catholic tradition and used congregation for ekklesia something which might have contributed to his being strangled at the stake by the Catholics.

And after the death of John Calvin, Theodore Beza in 1556 returned to the use of church to translate ekklesia - and the Geneva Bible followed him, using church instead of congregation. Beza returned to the Catholic Capital C Church translation of ekklesia as chirche.

Did a similar change from Tyndale's translations of οικονομιαν to the Geneva Bible's translation as dispensation, again going back to the older Catholic translation?

Ah, yes the Alexander Codices are the most perferred. Only one Book that I know of uses the Leningrad Codecies and that was the KJV...There is a reason, the Alexander Codices are missing or have many extra verses. Rem. This was the Home of the Gnostics.

Westcott-Hort are famous for leaving out and adding to the wording of the Bible... They are the ones who took out Mark 16-9-20. Very important verses that can be proven they are to be in the Bible. Yet, most Bibles (if they have Mark 16:9-20 printed) will have a note on the sideline telling the reader that these were added. Yet they were original.

Blade

 

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