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Author Topic: An Experimental Approach to a Long Accepted Belief: Comments  (Read 1759 times)

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Mr E

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Now, weíve hit a point that Iím not sure that I understand how Jesus could be fully God in his moments of doubt. Things like that are what this whole idea is about really.

Since you hold to Him being both fully God and Fully man, please explain what you can from both perspectives. Itís something Iíve never understood.

It's a theological connundrum.  A pickle.

The reason it doesn't seem to make sense is because it doesn't make sense.  It's hard to believe because it's unbelievable.  Often, folks who want to support this idea do so because they feel some kind of obligation to their beliefs which are based on what they've chosen to hold on to from among all of the things that they've been taught.  The fully God, and fully man teaching is accepted dogma, so therefore to be accepted by these groups as one under the banner of Christian you must accept this basic teaching... -or, you are out of the Club, or otherwise beaten with the club.

The premise is unsupportable, so to believe this teaching you must in fact suspend your disbelief.  Do you get that?  In order to believe it, you have to not disbelieve it. You have to accept something that is wholly unacceptable on it's face, hold your nose and agree that it doesn't smell... off.  If you can do this, then you can be considered part of the conventional wisdom-- the Christian collective... group think certified.

But let's examine it and I'll demonstrate why the two parts of this puzzle are irreconcilable.  To be fully man and fully God at the same time, all the time.  That's the nut we are trying to crack, right?

Let's look at the man/God equation mathematically. 

Man---------------------God           God----------------------Man
100%-------------------0%            100%--------------------0%

There can be no parts man in the 'Jesus was fully God' camp.  So the supporters hedge and they do so unapologetically.  They surmise that Jesus must have had everything of God's power and knowledge (being fully God) and simply ignored it at times, that he was perfect and sinless- and submitted himself to John's baptism of repentance only as an example for others to follow (since he had nothing to repent for) as just a couple examples.  They call it a mystery-- that which they can't explain and with a wave of the hand they just 'declare' that he was both somehow because they also say in agreement with the scriptures that he was tempted in every way common to man and that he understands our weaknesses.  It speaks of these things in Hebrews 4 and 5 and it's clear that he understand weakness and temptation because he was subject to everything anyone else faces-- this is what makes his example relevant and powerful.  These teachers will be quick to point out Heb 4:4 highlighting the without sin part...

For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin. Therefore let us draw near with confidence to the throne of grace, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need.

Yet we know that the reason the high priest can appear before the throne of God is only because he has first repented and offered the gifts and sacrifice.

Heb 5: 1-2

For every high priest taken from among men is appointed on behalf of men in things pertaining to God, in order to offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins; he can deal gently with the ignorant and misguided, since he himself also is beset with weakness; and because of it he is obligated to offer sacrifices for sins, as for the people, so also for himself.

It says every high priest-- it doesn't say every high priest but Jesus.  And one day you and I and every man who claims the blood of sacrifice will also stand before this same throne-- sinless.  Not because we never sinned, or never gave in to temptation, but because this same high priest-- this man/Lamb/Jesus became our sacrifice and this Son of God- arose and ascended into heaven where he became our high priest.  Was Jesus the high priest while he walked on this earth?  No- there was another, but that one was appointed by men and Jesus was annointed and made high priest not in the order of men, but by God who declared him  A PRIEST FOREVER ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF MELCHIZEDEK.

How do I reconcile it?  I don't.  There is no reconciliation or fudging of numbers.  God is God and not a man.  Jesus was a man and men are not God.

God -the Father-  sent his Son--- the Word of God (which springs forth from the Father) via the Holy Spirit (a messenger) to descend upon and fill the man Jesus who-- so annointed became the Christ-- the Messiah (annointed one) -- who is always a man and nothing more than a man apart from that Spirit which dwells within.

So where did Jesus get his knowledge?  The same way all prophets through all of time got everything they were given.  Over and over you can read of it both in the stories of the prophets and patriarchs.  You'll read that the Word of the Lord, or the Angel of the Lord came to....

So why is this different?  Because some folks insist it must be... to align with their teachings and what they have been taught.

Anyways-- outside the mainstream on this, but that's how you avoid the Falls.
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